MathDB
IMC 1999 / A2

Source: IMC 1999 day 1 problem 2

July 29, 2005
inequalitiesrearrangement inequalityIMCcollege contests

Problem Statement

Does there exist a bijective map f:NNf:\mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{N} so that n=1f(n)n2\sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{f(n)}{n^2} is finite?