For a positive integer n, define f(n) to be the number of sequences (a1,a2,…,ak) such that a1a2⋯ak=n where ai≥2 and k≥0 is arbitrary. Also we define f(1)=1. Now let α>1 be the unique real number satisfying ζ(α)=2, i.e ∑n=1∞nα1=2
Prove that (a) j=1∑nf(j)=O(nα)
(b) There is no real number β<α such that
j=1∑nf(j)=O(nβ)